Let's say a friend of mine wants to buy a car.
The question is to buy new or used.
I previously thought that the math goes like that.
Cars depreciate roughly 50% every 4 years (simplification).
So let's say someone buys new car for 40K drives 4 years and sells it;
amortization 20K. The person, who buys it next, drives 4 years and sells it
for 10K; amortization 10K. We're assuming of course,
no major investment is required in either time period (1-4 or 5-8 years).
See what I mean? Amortization of 10K vs 20K, 2.5K out of pocket annually
for a pleasure of driving slightly newer car.
I arbitrarily chose 40K as a price of the new vehicle
here, there are of course cheaper and more expensive cars.
I don't take financing or cost of money into account in the above example.
Here's another way to look at things. A friend of mine tends to drive his cars longer than 4 years. In fact he finds one he likes and drives it into the ground.
The buyer has the money and so can pay cash for the vehicle. The only debt he has is the mortgage (10 more years remaininng give or take).
He could buy brand new car or say 4 yo.
While there's a difference in price of a new vs 4 yo vehicle, it's not 50% as noted earlier, but something like 41K new/25K used. Assuming 15 years complete amortization, i.e. car worth $0 when 15 yo. The difference in average annual amortization is surprizingly low, I'd say practically negligible. The only remaning consideration would be the 'cost of money', i.e.
lost opportunity to put the difference between the cost of the new car and the used one towards the mortgage prepayment. While at current interest rates this is also not a big deal,
if the interest rates rise (and this guy's mortgage gets adjusted) the 'cost of money' can increase quite substantially.
He woulnd't consider 'investing' the difference, so please don't offer buying forex futures and such
Any thoughts? I am looking for validation (or not) of the above logic and any gotchas.




