I think that an example in the article is misleading without defining who is investor they are looking at? If it's anyone who holds shares at the moment, then average stock performance must match investors performance. In the example they have, long 100x$10.0, long 10x$20.0, short 20x$10 (=-1000$), there must be someone who did exactly the opposite to close these deals, i.e. short 100x$10.0, short 10x$20.0, long 20x$10 (=+1000$). If we count the counterparty as another investor, then the average gain/loss is -1000$ + +1000$ = 0$, exactly the same as for buy and hold investor. The question is just how counterparties split the stock market gains.
Now, both these examples ignore frictional costs (this will make market timing from zero-sum game in this example into negative sum - pure waste), and we can artificially ignore institutional investors/share buybacks/etc and concentrate on individual investors (aka suckers

, who consistently buy high and sell low). But I think the real reason for lower returns is transaction costs. Basically, naive market timing probably increases volatility and hurts your expected returns due to frictional costs, all at the same time.